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UGC NET · PSYCHOLOGY

UGC NET Psychology Paper 2 – Dec 2020 & June 2021 merged (Nov 2021) – Question Paper with Answer Key

100 questions · answer key at the end · updated 26 Oct 2026

Solved by The Binary Brothers: every question has the correct answer and an explanation. Open any question for its full solution, or practise it in the unit-wise mock tests.

Q1.

Which of the following nerves carry the sensory messages from skin, eyes and ears to Central Nervous System?

  1. Efferent
  2. Afferent
  3. Cranial
  4. Peripheral
Answer & explanation →
Q2.

A Woman who learns that she has been deprived of promotion to a higher job in a company, may storm into her boss's office and have temper tentrum. It exemplifies :

  1. Sublimation
  2. Rationalization
  3. Reaction Formation
  4. Regression
Answer & explanation →
Q3.

Which of the following is correct for the Pheromones?

  1. Biochemicals found within the brain which effect a person's behaviour
  2. Biochemials which play an important role in transmitting information from neuron to neuron
  3. Chemical messengers found in the Central Nervous System
  4. Chemical substances emitted by the person into the environment affecting the behaviour of others
Answer & explanation →
Q4.

Which of the following describes the enduring facilitation of synaptic transmission that occurs following activation of synapses by high intensity and high frequency stimulation of pre-synaptic neurons?

  1. Action potential
  2. Absolute refractory period
  3. Relative refractory period
  4. Long term potentiation
Answer & explanation →
Q5.

If a person's distinctive social category makes him or her vulnerable to stereotyping, it is referred to as:-

  1. Token integration
  2. Neosexism
  3. Ingratiation
  4. Token bias
Answer & explanation →
Q6.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

  1. Body's requirement of sleep varies with age
  2. Tertiary prevention is action taken to identify and treat an illness or injury early with an aim of stopping or reversing the problem
  3. Endorphins are released during exercise
  4. Excessive alcohol consumption leads to shrinking of frontal lobe of the brain.
Answer & explanation →
Q7.

Which of the following is involved in Type 'a' processes of thinking as described by Wertheimer?

  1. Grouping and reorganization
  2. Assimilation and conditioning
  3. Blind trial and error
  4. Partially productive methods
Answer & explanation →
Q8.

A person's chronological Age is 20 years, and mental age is 16 years. What would be his IQ?

  1. 120
  2. 100
  3. 80
  4. 110
Answer & explanation →
Q9.

"When individuals believe that moral choices are not dependent on close ties to others and that rules must be enforced in the same manner for everyone and each person should uphold them". The following statement is characteristic of which stage of Moral Development according to Kohlberg?

  1. Social contract orientation
  2. Morality of Interpersonal Cooperation
  3. Social order maintaining orientation
  4. Universal Ethical principle orientation
Answer & explanation →
Q10.

Which of the following statements describe the term 'Diffusion of Responsibility?

  1. People help others in order to reduce their emotional discomfort
  2. Greater the number of witnesses to an emergency, the less likely the victims are to receive help
  3. Helping others is a means of increasing one's own status and reputation
  4. Prosocial acts are motivated solely by the desire to help someone in need
Answer & explanation →
Q11.

Cattell proposed his theory of fluid and crystallized intelligences on the basis of which of the following?

  1. First order factors of abilities
  2. Second order factors of abilities
  3. Third order factors of abilities
  4. Higher order factors of abilities
Answer & explanation →
Q12.

Behavior is a direct result of behavioral intentions, this is explained by which of the following?

  1. Theory of reasoned action
  2. Theory of social Impact
  3. Equity theory
  4. Correspondent inference theory
Answer & explanation →
Q13.

As per Socrates' Greek Philosophy, Which of the following is NOT true about eudaemonia?

  1. It means living well or flourishing
  2. It is more than merely attaining pleasure
  3. Being virtuous is almost identical to eudaemonia
  4. Being virtuous does not guarantee eudaemonia
Answer & explanation →
Q14.

Multivariate Analysis of Variance (MANOVA) is best suited for making groupwise comparisons for several dependent variables. Which of the following are these?

  1. Uncorrelated
  2. Moderately correlated
  3. Very highly correlated
  4. Either uncorrelated or have small negative correlations
Answer & explanation →
Q15.

Who among the following proposed that different emotional stimuli induce different patterns of ANS activity and that these different patterns produce different emotional experiences?

  1. James–Lange
  2. Cannon–Bard
  3. Singer–Schachter
  4. Plutchik
Answer & explanation →
Q16.

The tendency to believe that a task will take less time than it really will, is known as:-

  1. Magical thinking
  2. Planning Fallacy
  3. Optimistic Bias
  4. Fundamental Attribution Error
Answer & explanation →
Q17.

Which of the following are the correct differences between Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease?

(A) Parkinson's disease is a disorder of middle and old age while Huntington's disease is a disorder of young.

(B) Parkinson's disease is a movement disorder while Huntington's disease is an emotional disorder.

(C) Unlike Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease has a strong genetic base.

(D) Parkinson's disease is not associated with severe dementia while Huntington's disease is.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A) , (C) and (D) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q18.

Memory that is thought to contain knowledge, facts, information, ideas that can be recalled or described in words, pictures, or symbols is called:-

  1. Procedural memory
  2. Episodic memory
  3. Semantic memory
  4. Declarative memory
Answer & explanation →
Q19.

Young adults who return after leaving home for some period, to live in their middle aged parents home are known as:-

  1. Sandwich children
  2. Benevolent children
  3. Boomerang children
  4. Compliant children
Answer & explanation →
Q20.

Integration of cognitive aspects of learning with the emotional aspects of experience and learning is known as:-

  1. Integrated approach to learning
  2. Confluent education
  3. Feeling class approach to education
  4. Motivational approach to learning
Answer & explanation →
Q21.

Which one of the following is usually not considered an example of the evaluative dimension of the Osgood Semantic Differential?

  1. Clean –––––––––––– Dirty
  2. Slow –––––––––––– Fast
  3. Good –––––––––––– Bad
  4. Kind –––––––––––– Cruel
Answer & explanation →
Q22.

In which schools of Indian thought about yoga, 'Prakrti' remains isolated as a principle of ultimate reality into self and is active only in the presence and service of 'Purusa'?

  1. Integral yoga philosophy
  2. Vedanta
  3. Samkhya
  4. Sahaj yoga
Answer & explanation →
Q23.

Pattern of familial transmission of intelligence from one generation to other is investigated in which of the following?

  1. Linkage analysis studies
  2. Adoption studies
  3. Association studies
  4. Segregation analysis Studies
Answer & explanation →
Q24.

Persons inclined to be verbally aggressive have:-

  1. low threshold for Behaviour Activation system
  2. low threshold for Flight–Fight system
  3. high threshold for Behaviour Inhibition system
  4. high threshold for Behaviour Activation system
Answer & explanation →
Q25.

The person's failure to respond to the second stimulus while continuing to respond to the first stimulus is because of:-

  1. Event Related Potential (ERP)
  2. Psychological Refractory Period (PRP)
  3. Priming effect
  4. Excessive mental effort
Answer & explanation →
Q26.

Some people are able to draw an object, match similar objects and describe the component parts but they fail to recognize the objects that they had just seen or drawn. Which of the following describes this phenomena?

  1. Associative Agnosia
  2. Apperceptive Agnosia
  3. Visual Neglect
  4. Form Agnosia
Answer & explanation →
Q27.

Discovery and understanding of our own abilities brings happiness but also brings fear of new responsibilities and duties. It is called:-

  1. Fear of failure
  2. Jonah complex
  3. Motives conflict
  4. Fear of success
Answer & explanation →
Q28.

Qualities such as calmness, tolerance, sociability, love of comfort and easy goingness depict, which of the following?

  1. Viscertonia
  2. Somatotonia
  3. Cerebrotonia
  4. Ectomorphia
Answer & explanation →
Q29.

In which phase of Enright's model of psychological forgiveness, individual gains a cognitive understanding of the offender in a new light that brings a positive change in view about the offender, self and the relationship?

  1. Uncovering phase
  2. Decision phase
  3. Work phase
  4. Deepening phase
Answer & explanation →
Q30.

It is possible to accept the world as it is, without experiencing dissatisfaction. This is related to which of the following in Buddhism?

  1. Right thought in eight–fold path
  2. Right mindfulness in eight-fold path
  3. Elimination of craving
  4. Existence of satisfaction/dissatisfaction
Answer & explanation →
Q31.

Which one of the following is considered as a culture-fair test?

  1. Bhatia's Battery of Intelligence
  2. Kaufman's Intelligence Tests
  3. Wechsler's Adult Intelligence scale
  4. Naglieri Nonverbal Ability Test
Answer & explanation →
Q32.

Projective measures, particularly inkblot tests, index which of the following?

  1. Novelty context of creativity
  2. Meaning context of creativity
  3. Domain specific creativity
  4. General creative potential
Answer & explanation →
Q33.

When a target is defined by just one distinctive feature which is available on its feature map and it calls attention to itself is known as:-

  1. Binding effect
  2. Pop-out effect
  3. Conjunction effect
  4. Orienting effect
Answer & explanation →
Q34.

Which one of the following is a nearest parametric alternative to Kruskal–Wallis test?

  1. Independent samples t test
  2. Paired samples t test
  3. One–way ANOVA for independent groups
  4. One–way ANOVA for repeated measures
Answer & explanation →
Q35.

Which theory determines poverty as a psychological problem of separated classes in society?

  1. Attribution theory
  2. Depletable self–control theory
  3. Distancing theory
  4. Multiple factor theory of poverty
Answer & explanation →
Q36.

Visuospatial sketch pad is a component of which of the following?

  1. Long-term memory
  2. Short-term memory
  3. Working memory
  4. Sensory memory
Answer & explanation →
Q37.

Who of the following emphasised nomothetic approach in personality research?

  1. Allport
  2. Eysenk
  3. Jung
  4. Galton
Answer & explanation →
Q38.

After being robbed by a boy recently the shopkeeper says "beware of teenagers in our community". Which of the following explains his reactions?

  1. Algorithm
  2. Availability Heuristic
  3. Representative Heuristic
  4. Gambler's fallacy
Answer & explanation →
Q39.

Communication of the understanding of the 'internal frame of reference' to client by a therapist pertains to which type of counseling skills?

  1. Reflection
  2. Focusing
  3. Empathy
  4. Social influencer
Answer & explanation →
Q40.

Vouyerstic and exhibitionistic disorders are included in which of the following in DSM-5?

  1. Sexual dysfunctions
  2. Paraphillic disorders
  3. Other conditions that focus on clinical attention
  4. Disruptive impulse control and conduct disorders
Answer & explanation →
Q41.

Which of the following are true regarding Broca's area?

(A) It is located in the frontal lobe.

(B) Its function is speech production.

(C) Understanding and processing aspects of language are associated with it.

(D) It helps people using sign language.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Answer & explanation →
Q42.

Which of the following is/are correctly associated with Plato's idea of 'Chariot that is pulled by two horses'?

(A) Desiring soul is the charioteer.

(B) Rational soul is located in the head.

(C) Rational soul is governed by restraint and modesty.

(D) Spirited soul knows the honour.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (C) only
  2. (A) and (B) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (A), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q43.

Ethological approach to motivation mainly explains

(A) biological aspects of behaviour.

(B) evolutionary history of behaviour.

(C) causation of behaviour in terms of stimulus, hormonal and neurobiological events.

(D) proximal determinants of behaviour.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A),(B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q44.

Loftus and Pickrell (1995) asked people to read and think about events which had happened to them in childhood and also instructed to write a description of one event which was actually fictitious. About one third of the participants described the fictitious events as having really happened to them. This is called:-

(A) Eyewitness memory

(B) False memory

(C) Flash bulb memory

(D) Autobiographical memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (B) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (A) only
Answer & explanation →
Q45.

Which of the following characteristics are applicable to emotions that are considered to occur as a result of interaction among subjective and environmental factors and neural and hormonal processes?

(A) Emotions give rise to hedonic experiences.

(B) Emotions stimulate to generate cognitive explanations.

(C) Emotions trigger variety of internal neurobiological changes.

(D) Emotions always elicit rewarding behaviour.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q46.

In the two group design with a continuous dependent variable, which of the following measures of effect size can be employed?

(A) Cohen's d

(B) Point biserial correlation

(C) Eta square

(D) Partial eta square

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (A), B) and (C) only
  4. (A), (B) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q47.

Which of the following are considered as projective tests of personality?

(A) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

(B) Rotter's Incomplete Sentences Blank (RISB)

(C) Guttman's Scalogram Analysis

(D) Kent–Rosenoff Free Association Test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (A), (B) and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Answer & explanation →
Q48.

Which of the following are correctly described influences of Behaviourism?

(A) Watson's scientific psychology was designed to predict and control human behaviour

(B) Mary Cover Jones studied the effectiveness of counter conditioning

(C) Skinner claimed to have introduced the term 'Behaviour therapy' and is also credited for it

(D) Lazarus emphasised the extension of Thorndike's Law of effect

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (A) and (B) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q49.

Interscorer reliability is relevant in:-

(A) projective tests of personality

(B) achievement tests with short answers

(C) achievement tests with essay type questions

(D) self–report personality inventories

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q50.

Which of the following tactics for gaining compliance are based on reciprocity?

(A) The Door–in–the – face technique

(B) "That's – Not–All" Approach

(C) Playing hard to get

(D) Foot–in–the Door Technique

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q51.

Which of the following type of inversion is observed in reaction formation?

(A) Implicit

(B) Explicit

(C) Conscious

(D) Unconscious

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (A) and (C) only
Answer & explanation →
Q52.

Attitudes can be classically conditioned even without our awareness by which of the following?

(A) Subliminal conditioning

(B) Observational learning

(C) Mere exposure

(D) Social networks

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (A) and (C) only
  4. (B) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q53.

Which among these is correct for Cyber bullying?

(A) It involves disinhibition

(B) Lesser role of Bystanders

(C) Ability of targets to retaliate is more

(D) No evidence left behind

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (B), (C) and (D) only
  4. (A), (B) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q54.

Which of the following in learning environment are considered to be true about school success?

(A) The self image is vital to learning

(B) Very high goal setting is necessary to motivate and study

(C) Success experience is a function of challenge more than repetition

(D) Child's spiritual identity is vital to learning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q55.

Which of the following are the performance subtests of WAIS?

(A) Digit span

(B) Similarities

(C) Digit symbol

(D) Object assembly

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (C) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (B), (C) and (D) only
  4. (A), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q56.

Which of the following categories were given by Skinner for different verbal responses in terms of how they are reinforced?

(A) Mand

(B) Tact

(C) Echoic Behaviour

(D) Autoclitic Behaviour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q57.

Which among the following does not refer to Social Referencing?

(A) Intentional search for information about others' feelings, to help explain the meaning of uncertain circumstances and events

(B) It occurs around the age of 2 – 3 years

(C) Infants make use of facial expressions in social referencing

(D) Infants need to understand the significance of other's behavior within the context of a specific situation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (B) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (A) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q58.

Which of the following characterizes Cognitive Dissonance?

(A) Dissonance often occurs in situations involving forced compliance

(B) Attempts to resolve dissonance are reflected in increased cortical activity

(C) Dissonance cannot be reduced directly but only by adding cognitions that justify our behaviours

(D) Dissonance is stronger when we have little justification for our attitude – inconsistent behaviour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A), (B) and (C) only
  2. (A), (B) and (D) only
  3. (B), (C) and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q59.

New Mood Therapy:-

(A) is a cognitive therapy

(B) is meant for treatment of depression

(C) involves many behavioural interventions

(D) was originated by Ellis

(E) is action commitment therapy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A), (B) and (E) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (E) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q60.

The components of 'Working Memory' are:-

(A) Acoustic unit

(B) Semantic unit

(C) Central executive

(D) Episodic buffer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (A) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q61.

Mayer-Salovey-Caruso Emotional Intelligence Test (MSCEIT) measures:-

(A) Perceiving emotions

(B) Using emotions to facilitate thought

(C) Understanding emotions

(D) Implicit motivation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q62.

Which of the following are features of Metacognition?

(A) Encoding

(B) Regulation

(C) Monitoring

(D) Evaluation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A), (B) and (C) only
  2. (A) and (B) only
  3. (C) and (B) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q63.

Jensen's Level I and Level II abilities can be best understood in terms of which of the following?

(A) Difficulty and complexity of tasks

(B) SES Differences

(C) Racial Differences

(D) Gender Differences

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q64.

What are the characteristics of 'Emerging persons' in Rogerian approach?

(A) Honest and open

(B) Indifferent to material comforts and rewards

(C) Caring

(D) Having profound trust in authority

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A) and (B) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Answer & explanation →
Q65.

Which of the following are correct for the Biopsychosocial Model of health?

(A) Close interaction between body and mind, though they are separate entities

(B) Active participation of the patient

(C) Health and illness are on the same continuum

(D) Treatment process involves medication, surgery and radiation

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:-

  1. (A), (B) and (C) only
  2. (A), (B) and (D) only
  3. (B), (C) and (D) only
  4. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Answer & explanation →
Q66.

Match List I with List II

List I – ConceptList II – Description
A. TuriyavasthaI. Transcognitive realisation
B. AparavidyaII. Highest state of consciousness
C. ParavidyaIII. Transcendental knowledge
D. NididhyasanaIV. Empirical knowledge
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation →
Q67.

Match List I with List II

List I – Variable typeList II – Example
A. Artificially discrete variableI. Reaction time
B. Continuous behavioural variableII. Gender
C. Continuous organismic variableIII. Selection test result in terms of selected, not selected, on waiting list
D. Dummy variableIV. Height
  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Answer & explanation →
Q68.

Match List I with List II

List I – Depth cueList II – Explanation
A. Motion parallaxI. Both eyes fixate on the same point in space
B. Texture gradientII. Partial occlusion of a far object by a near object
C. InterpositionIII. Graded variation in the shape, size and density of the surface elements
D. ConvergenceIV. Movement in one part of the image relative to another
  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Answer & explanation →
Q69.

Match List I with List II

List I – TestList II – Psychologist
A. Creative Achievement QuestionnaireI. Carson–Peterson–Higgins
B. Runco Ideational Behaviour ScaleII. Runco
C. Preference for Active Divergence ScaleIII. Basadur
D. Consensual Assessment TechniqueIV. Amabile
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation →
Q70.

Match List I with List II

List I – IndexList II – Test
A. Universal IndexI. OATB
B. Disclosure IndexII. MCMI
C. True Response InconsistencyIII. MMPI
D. Coping Deficit IndexIV. Rorschach Inkblot Test
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation →
Q71.

Match List I with List II

List I – Social conceptList II – Explanation
A. Elaboration Likelihood ModelI. Gender stereotypes
B. Realistic Conflict TheoryII. Central and peripheral route to persuasion
C. Glass CliffIII. Ideological change in core aspect of a group
D. SchismIV. Intergroup competition as a source of prejudice
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation →
Q72.

Match List I with List II

List I – Type of communication in family therapyList II – Description
A. CongruentI. Carries an air of self-importance
B. PlacatingII. Placing others above oneself
C. BlamingIII. Seeing the world with a lens of objectivity and coolness
D. Super-reasonableIV. Reasonably flexible with a sense of connection
  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation →
Q73.

Match List I with List II

List I – ConceptList II – Description
A. Situational povertyI. Not equipped with tools to move out
B. Generational povertyII. Not able to meet the average standard of society
C. Relative povertyIII. Scarcity of necessities like shelter, running water and food
D. Absolute povertyIV. Caused by environmental disasters, divorce and other issues like poor health etc.
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation →
Q74.

Match List I with List II

List I – Theoretical perspectiveList II – Explanation
A. Encoding Specificity HypothesisI. Does not endorse different memory storage
B. Retrieval-induced ForgettingII. Suppress unwanted memories
C. Schema Theory of MemoryIII. Superiority of recognition over recall
D. Level of Processing TheoryIV. Effect of meaning and knowledge on memory
  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Answer & explanation →
Q75.

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Cognitive Assessment SystemI. Das
B. Hold and Don't-Hold TestsII. Wechsler
C. Cognitive Assessment BatteryIII. Cattell
D. Differential Ability TestIV. Elliot
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Answer & explanation →
Q76.

Arrange the first five elements of 'Flow' in correct sequence :

(A) Clarity of Goals

(B) Immediate Feedback of Actions

(C) Balance between challenges and skills

(D) Merger of awareness and actions

(E) Exclusion of distractions from consciousness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, B, C, D, E
  2. A, C, B, D, E
  3. B, C, A, E, D
  4. C, B, A, D, E
Answer & explanation →
Q77.

Arrange the following as per the Yogic Concept of Cognition.

(A) Sensorial transformation is attended by manas

(B) Reaction by budhi to the object of cognition

(C) Registration of external object on mind

(D) Assimilation and discrimination by manas

(E) Information to Ahamkara

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. C, A, E, B, D
  2. C, A, D, E, B
  3. A, C, D, E, B
  4. C, A, B, D, E
Answer & explanation →
Q78.

Arrange the following correlations in ascending order in terms of their strength of relationship

(A) – 0.75

(B) – 0.30

(C) 0.40

(D) 0.68

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. B, C, D, A
  2. B, A, C, D
  3. A, B, C, D
  4. D, C, B, A
Answer & explanation →
Q79.

The evolution of the various explanations or models of memory occur in the following sequence :

(A) Multistore

(B) Working memory

(C) Level of processing

(D) Interference

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. D, A, C, B
  2. D, C, B, A
  3. A, B, C, D
  4. B, C, D, A
Answer & explanation →
Q80.

Arrange in correct sequence, the first five intelligences given by Gardner :

(A) Linguistic Intelligence

(B) Logico-mathematical Intelligence

(C) Spatial Intelligence

(D) Kinesthetic Intelligence

(E) Natural intelligence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, B, C, D, E
  2. B, A, C, E, D
  3. C, B, A, D, E
  4. D, C, E, B, A
Answer & explanation →
Q81.

Arrange the Nafs (Self in Sufism) from lower to higher self :

(A) The self pleasing to God

(B) The pure self

(C) Inspired self

(D) Serene self

(E) The pleased self

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. E, C, A, B, D
  2. C, D, E, A, B
  3. C, E, A, D, B
  4. B, C, E, D, A
Answer & explanation →
Q82.

According to Master and Johnson, which of the following is correct sequence of Sexual Response?

(A) Excitement

(B) Desire

(C) Plateau

(D) Orgasm

(E) Resolution

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, C, D, E
  2. B, A, D, E
  3. B, A, C, D
  4. A, B, C, D
Answer & explanation →
Q83.

Give the correct sequence of stages in the relationship maintenance as suggested by Thibaut and Kelly (1959) in their Social Exchange Theory :

(A) Bargaining

(B) Commitment

(C) Sampling

(D) Institutionalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, C, B, D
  2. C, A, B, D
  3. B, D, A, C
  4. C, B, D, A
Answer & explanation →
Q84.

Give the sequence of Identity Formation in Adolescents.

(A) Consolidation

(B) Exploration

(C) Rapprochement

(D) Differentiation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. B, D, C, A
  2. D, B, A, C
  3. D, B, C, A
  4. C, A, B, D
Answer & explanation →
Q85.

Arrange in a sequence the Stop-start Relapse Cycle of Internet Addiction :

(A) Regret

(B) Rationalization

(C) Relapse

(D) Abstinence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A, D, B, C
  2. B, A, D, C
  3. D, A, C, B
  4. A, B, D, C
Answer & explanation →
Q86.

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion (A) : Chances of inheriting the dominant genes are twice in females as compared to males

Reason (R) : Females in comparison to males have two 'X' chromosomes

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q87.

Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Edwards Personality Preference Schedule (EPPS) uses forced choice format.

Statement (II) : The forced choice format is presumed to prevent socially desirable responding

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct
  2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect
  3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect
  4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q88.

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : In fixed interval schedule of reinforcement behaviour is reinforced in a fixed time period.

Reason (R) : When students get feedback intermittently their level of performance increases

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is Not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q89.

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Cattell incorporated factors Q1, Q2, Q3 and Q4 in 16 PF

Reason (R) : Some factors appeared only in L–data not in Q and T-data

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is Not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q90.

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Lewin asserted that avoidance – avoidance conflicts are relatively more stable

Reason (R) : Opposing forces tend to remain in a state of disequilibrium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is Not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation →

A psychologist was interested in developing an English Language Usage test for HSSC students. She wrote 120 questions trying to cover several areas of language usage. Each question had five alternatives, out of which only one was right. The draft version of the test was given to a sample of 200 students. The test items were analysed in two ways — carrying out item-remainder correlation and discrimination index for each item. For the purpose of computing item discrimination index, she labelled those who had a total score below P27 as low scorers, and those who had a total score above P73 as high scorers (assume that P27 and P73 had non-fractional, i.e. full integer, values). The statistical significance of the discrimination index of each item was evaluated by an appropriate test. Ninety items were retained in item analysis. The ninety-item version was administered to a fresh sample of 400 subjects. Cronbach alpha was computed. The psychologist also wondered if she could compute Kuder-Richardson (K-R) reliability for her test. Since the Cronbach alpha was pretty high, i.e. .947, and the test was quite long, she decided to develop two parallel forms, each of 45 items. She randomly assigned the items to two halves, labelling them as Form A and Form B. For each form, she assessed average inter-item correlation, mean, standard deviation and Cronbach alpha. The two forms satisfied the criteria for parallel forms.

Q91.

Item I was passed by 30 subjects in the low scoring group and by 56 subjects in the high scoring group. What would be the discrimination index for item I?

  1. 0.241
  2. 0.481
  3. 0.556
  4. 0.796
Answer & explanation →
Q92.

Which one of the following tests can be used for evaluating the statistical significance of the discrimination index?

  1. Chi-square test
  2. t test
  3. F test
  4. Mann-Whitney U test
Answer & explanation →
Q93.

What is the expected Cronbach alpha for Form A?

  1. .474
  2. .899
  3. .913
  4. .947
Answer & explanation →
Q94.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): It is not possible to compute K-R reliability for the above test, since each item has five alternatives.

Reason (R): K-R reliability can be computed when the items can be dichotomously scored.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is Not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q95.

For computing inter-item correlations, which one of the following is suitable?

  1. Point biserial correlation
  2. Biserial correlation
  3. Rank difference correlation
  4. Phi-coefficient
Answer & explanation →

An experimental psychologist wanted to test two hypotheses. The first hypothesis proposed that stress would adversely affect the rate of serial learning. The second hypothesis proposed that the type of material (meaningless vs. meaningful) would moderate the effect of stress. The psychologist formed six groups by manipulating stress (A) at three levels — Low, Moderate and High — and Type of material (B) at two levels. The subjects were randomly assigned to these groups from an initial pool of subjects. A list of 15 CVC trigrams constituted meaningless material and a list of 15 three-lettered meaningful words constituted meaningful material. The number of trials required to learn the list was the dependent variable. The data were analysed by suitable analysis of variance. Selected findings: (1) The ratio of largest to smallest standard deviations for the six groups was reasonably close to one. (2) The degrees of freedom for error variance was 135. (3) The F ratio for the effect of stress was 0.95. (4) The effect sizes for each effect were calculated both by obtaining eta square and partial eta square.

Q96.

The above design can best be labelled as:

  1. Randomized 3 × 2 balanced factorial design
  2. Randomized 3 × 2 balanced factorial design with a covariate
  3. Randomized 3 × 2 unbalanced factorial design
  4. Randomized block design
Answer & explanation →
Q97.

The above data indicate:

  1. that the assumption of homogeneity of variance is satisfied
  2. that the assumption of homogeneity of variance is not satisfied
  3. the absence of information related to the assumption of homogeneity of variance
  4. the formal test of homogeneity of variance needs to be carried out
Answer & explanation →
Q98.

The above results indicate that:

  1. the first hypothesis is verified
  2. the first hypothesis is rejected
  3. the first hypothesis is partially verified
  4. the inadequate information for evaluating the first hypothesis
Answer & explanation →
Q99.

Which one of the following F ratios would be used to evaluate the second hypothesis?

  1. F = MS(A) / MS(E)
  2. F = MS(B) / MS(E)
  3. F = MS(A×B) / MS(E)
  4. F = MS(A) / [MS(A×B) + MS(E)]
Answer & explanation →
Q100.

The above findings indicate that post-hoc comparisons are:

  1. Necessary for the effect of stress
  2. Necessary for the effect of type of material
  3. Necessary both for the effect of stress and type of material
  4. Neither necessary for the effect of stress nor the type of material
Answer & explanation →

Answer key

  1. 1 – B
  2. 2 – D
  3. 3 – D
  4. 4 – D
  5. 5 – A
  6. 6 – B
  7. 7 – A
  8. 8 – C
  9. 9 – C
  10. 10 – B
  11. 11 – B
  12. 12 – A
  13. 13 – D
  14. 14 – B
  15. 15 – A
  16. 16 – B
  17. 17 – C
  18. 18 – D
  19. 19 – C
  20. 20 – B
  21. 21 – B
  22. 22 – C
  23. 23 – D
  24. 24 – A
  25. 25 – B
  26. 26 – A
  27. 27 – B
  28. 28 – A
  29. 29 – C
  30. 30 – C
  31. 31 – D
  32. 32 – D
  33. 33 – B
  34. 34 – C
  35. 35 – C
  36. 36 – C
  37. 37 – B
  38. 38 – B
  39. 39 – C
  40. 40 – B
  41. 41 – D
  42. 42 – C
  43. 43 – C
  44. 44 – B
  45. 45 – C
  46. 46 – C
  47. 47 – C
  48. 48 – C
  49. 49 – B
  50. 50 – A
  51. 51 – C
  52. 52 – C
  53. 53 – B
  54. 54 – C
  55. 55 – B
  56. 56 – D
  57. 57 – A
  58. 58 – B
  59. 59 – B
  60. 60 – D
  61. 61 – C
  62. 62 – D
  63. 63 – C
  64. 64 – C
  65. 65 – A
  66. 66 – B
  67. 67 – A
  68. 68 – B
  69. 69 – A
  70. 70 – A
  71. 71 – D
  72. 72 – C
  73. 73 – C
  74. 74 – B
  75. 75 – A
  76. 76 – A
  77. 77 – B
  78. 78 – A
  79. 79 – A
  80. 80 – A
  81. 81 – B
  82. 82 – A
  83. 83 – B
  84. 84 – C
  85. 85 – A
  86. 86 – D
  87. 87 – A
  88. 88 – B
  89. 89 – C
  90. 90 – C
  91. 91 – B
  92. 92 – A
  93. 93 – B
  94. 94 – D
  95. 95 – D
  96. 96 – C
  97. 97 – A
  98. 98 – B
  99. 99 – C
  100. 100 – D