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UGC NET · PAPER 2

UGC NET Paper 2 Computer Science – June 2023 – Question Paper with Answer Key

100 questions · answer key at the end · updated 26 Oct 2026

Solved by The Binary Brothers: every question has the correct answer and an explanation. Open any question for its full solution, or practise it in the unit-wise mock tests.

Q1.

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Validity checks the real need of system users

Reason R: Completeness checks system user- defined requirements. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q2. Consider the following statements about the heap sort algorithm:
A. The MAX-HEAPIFY procedure, which runs in O(lg n) time, is the key to maintaining the max-heap property.
B. The BUILD-MAX-HEAP procedure, which runs in O(lg n) time, produces a max-heap from an unordered input array.
C. The MAX-HEAP-INSERT procedure, which runs in O(lg n) time, implements the insertion operation.
D. The HEAP-INCREASE-KEY procedure runs in O(n lg n) time to set the key of a new node to its correct value.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A, B only
  2. A, C only
  3. B, D only
  4. A, B, C, D
Answer & explanation →
Q3. Consider the universe of positive integers X = {n | 1 ≤ n ≤ 8}, proposition P = "n is an even integer", Q = "(3 ≤ n ≤ 7) ∧ (n ≠ 6)". The truth set of P ↔ Q is
  1. {1, 4}
  2. {2, 6}
  3. {3, 4, 5}
  4. {1}
Answer & explanation →
Q4. Let (Z, +) denote the group of all integers under addition. Then the number of automorphisms of (Z, +) is
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answer & explanation →
Q5.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. PERT, B. Optimistic time, C. CPM, D. Pessimistic time. List II: I. Used for non-repetitive jobs, II. Used for repetitive jobs, III. The shortest possible time to complete the activity if all goes well, IV. The longest time that an activity takes.

Figure
  1. A-III B-IV C-II D-I
  2. A-IV B-I C-II D-III
  3. A-I B-III C-II D-II
  4. A-I B-III C-II D-IV
Answer & explanation →
Q6. Which of the following is used to determine the cost performance index?
  1. Budgeted cost of work performed − budget at completion
  2. Budgeted cost of work performed ÷ budget at completion
  3. Budgeted cost of work performed ÷ Actual cost of work performed
  4. Budgeted cost of work performed − Actual cost of work performed
Answer & explanation →
Q7. ________ is intended to show that a system both conforms to its specifications and meets the expectations of the system customer.
  1. Software specification
  2. Software design
  3. Software evaluation
  4. Software validation
Answer & explanation →
Q8.

A TCP server application is programmed to listen on port P on host S . A TCP client is connected to the TCP server over the network, Consider that while TCP connection is active the server is crashed and rebooted. Assume that the client does not use TCP keepalive timer. Which of the following behaviour/s is/are possible?

Statement I: The TCP application server on S can listen on P after reboot.

Statement II: If client sends a packet after the server reboot, it will receive the RST segment. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer & explanation →
Q9.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R.

Assertion A: I/O protection is ensured by a hardware trap

Reason R: I/O interrupt caused by the condition like I/O completion and device malfunction occuring within the I/O devices In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q10.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Parallel FFT, B. Iterative FFT, C. Evaluation of a polynomial at n points by Horner's method, D. Product of two polynomials represented in point-value form. List II: I. Θ(n²), II. Θ(n), III. Θ(lg n), IV. Θ(n lg n).

Figure
  1. A-III B-I C-II D-III
  2. A-II B-I C-III D-IV
  3. A-III B-IV C-I D-II
  4. A-II B-III C-IV D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q11.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Bezier curves, B. B-splines, C. Sweep representations, D. Natural objects. List II: I. 3D objects that have translational/rotational symmetry, II. Fractal geometry, III. Bias and tension, IV. Painting, drawing, CAD.

Figure
  1. A-IV B-I C-III D-II
  2. A-II B-III C-IV D-I
  3. A-IV B-III C-I D-II
  4. A-II B-IV C-I D-III
Answer & explanation →
Q12.

Let f(n) and g(n) be asymptotically positive functions. Statement I: f(n) ≥ 1 and f(n) = O(g(n)) ⇒ g(n) = Ω(f(n)). Statement II: f(n) = O(g(n)) ⇒ lg(f(n)) = O(lg(g(n))), where lg(g(n)) ≥ 1 and f(n) ≥ 1 for all sufficiently large n. Choose the most appropriate answer.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q13.

Consider the following statements:

S1: LRU page replacement algorithm suffers from the belady's anomaly

S2: Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvations

S3: Stack is shared by all threads in a process

  1. S1 S2 and S3 are true
  2. S1, S3 false and S2 is true
  3. S1, S2 are false and S3 is true
  4. S1,S2 and S3 are false
Answer & explanation →
Q14. The total cost of retrieving records in sorted order using an unclustered B+ tree is (P = average number of records per data page, N = number of data pages, F = ratio of the size of a data entry to the size of a data record)
  1. (F × N) + P
  2. (F + P) × N
  3. F × N × P
  4. F + P/N
Answer & explanation →
Q15.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Scenario testing, B. Regression testing, C. Component testing, D. Beta testing. List II: I. To verify the I/O behaviour of a text object, II. User acceptance methodology, III. No new bugs after changes in the program, IV. The documentation of a use case.

Figure
  1. A-IV B-III C-II D-I
  2. A-II B-I C-III D-IV
  3. A-IV B-III C-I D-II
  4. A-III B-I C-IV D-II P
Answer & explanation →
Q16.

A. If some NP-complete problem P is in 𝒫, then 𝒫 = 𝒩𝒫. B. TSP is in 𝒩𝒫. C. SAT is in 𝒩𝒫. D. The Hamiltonian circuit problem is not NP-complete. Which are correct?

  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. C, D and A only
  4. D, A and B only
Answer & explanation →
Q17. A B-tree used as an index for a large database table has four levels including the root node. If a new key is inserted into this index, the maximum number of nodes that could be newly created in the process is
  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2
Answer & explanation →
Q18.

Suppose a circular queue of capacity n-1 elements is implemented with an array of n elements. Assume that the insertion and deletion operations are carried out using REAR and FRONT as array index variable respectively. Initially, REAR = FRONT =0. The conditions to detect queue empty and queue full are

  1. EMPTY: REAR == FRONT FULL: ( REAR +1 ) mod n == FRONT
  2. EMPTY: ( FRONT +1) mod n==REAR FULL: (REAR+1) mod n ==FRONT
  3. EMPTY: ( REAR+1) mod n==FRONT FULL: REAR == FRONT
  4. EMPTY: REAR == FRONT FULL: ( FRONT +1 ) mod n == REAR
Answer & explanation →
Q19. Consider the following statements about a software product line system:
Statement I: At the interaction level, components provide an operator display interface and an interface with the communication system used.
Statement II: At the I/O management level, components handle operator authentication, report generator and query manager.
  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q20.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R .

Assertion A: A process involves a library function to create a thread.

Reason R: The threads make system calls to convey their resource and I/O requirement to the Kernel. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q21.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R.

Assertion A: The AVL trees are more balanced as compared to Red Black trees, but they may cause more rotations during insertion and deletion

Reason R: A Red Black tree with n nodes has 2 log (n + 1) height that is greater than 2 and the AVL tree with n nodes has height less than – log (√5(n + 2)) − 2( Φ Φ where is golden ratio) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q22.

Match List I with List II

Figure
  1. A-III B-II C-I D-IV
  2. A-II B-III C-I D-IV
  3. A-III B-I C-II D-IV
  4. A-II B-IV C-I D-III R = {x, x ∈ N, x
Answer & explanation →
Q23.

Let R = {x ∈ N : x is a multiple of 3 and x ≤ 100} and S = {x ∈ N : x is a multiple of 5 and x < 100}. What is the number of elements in (R ∩ S) × (S ∩ R)?

  1. 36
  2. 33
  3. 20
  4. 6 R(A, B, C, D)
Answer & explanation →
Q24.

Let R(A, B, C, D) be a relational schema with dependencies A → B, B → C, C → D and D → B. The decomposition of R into (A, B), (B, C), (B, D):

  1. gives a lossless join, and is dependency preserving
  2. gives lossless join, but is not dependency preserving
  3. does not give a lossless join, but is dependency preserving
  4. does not give a lossless join and is not dependency preserving
Answer & explanation →
Q25.

Consider the following finite automata F1 that accepts a language L

Figure

Let F2 be a finite automata which is obtained by reversal of F1. Then which of the following is correct?

  1. L(F1) ≠ L(F2)
  2. L(F1) = L(F2)
  3. L(F1) ≤ L(F2)
  4. L(F1) ≥ L(F2)
Answer & explanation →
Q26.

Given below are two statements: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to virtual memory

Statement I: Address translation is performed for every logical address used during the execution of a program

Statement II: A program can execute only when all of its components are loaded in the memory In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q27. There are m points on one straight line AB and n points on another straight line AC, none of them being A. How many triangles can be formed with these points as vertices?
  1. mn(m + n − 2)
  2. ½ mn(m + n − 2)
  3. ½ mn(m + n − 1)
  4. mn(m + n − 1)
Answer & explanation →
Q28.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fuzzifier is a part of a fuzzy system

Statement II: Inference engine is a part of fuzzy system In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q29. Consider the following statements:
A. A database design is in BCNF if each member of the set of relation schemas that constitutes the design is in BCNF.
B. A BCNF schema can have a transitive dependency.
C. It is always possible to obtain a 3NF design without sacrificing a lossless join.
D. There are multivalued dependencies in 4NF.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q30. Which of the following is NOT a property of a good system for the representation of knowledge in a particular domain?
  1. Presentation adequacy
  2. Inferential adequacy
  3. Inferential efficiency
  4. Acquisitional efficiency
Answer & explanation →
Q31. What will be the output of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
int main() {
  int a, b, c;
  a = 0x10; b = 010;
  c = a + b;
  printf("%d", c);
  return 0;
}
  1. 20
  2. 24
  3. Garbage
  4. Error
Answer & explanation →
Q32.

What is the 4+4 bit binary fixed-point equivalent of −(3.72)₁₀?

  1. 0011.1100
  2. 0011.1010
  3. 1100.0100
  4. 0011.1011
Answer & explanation →
Q33. Let N be the set of natural numbers and R the relation on N × N defined by (a, b) R (c, d) if ad(b + c) = bc(a + d). Then R is
  1. Symmetric only
  2. Reflexive only
  3. Transitive only
  4. An equivalence relation
Answer & explanation →
Q34. The maximum yield length of the following CNF CFG is
S → AB
A → CD
B → e
C → a
D → b
  1. 8
  2. 7
  3. 4
  4. 5
Answer & explanation →
Q35.

Let ⊕ denote XOR, and 1 and 0 the binary constants. F(P, Q) = ((1 ⊕ P) ⊕ (P ⊕ Q)) ⊕ ((P ⊕ Q) ⊕ (Q ⊕ 0)). Which of the following is equivalent to F?

  1. P ⊕ Q
  2. P + Q
  3. (P + Q)′
  4. (P ⊕ Q)′
Answer & explanation →
Q36.

Which of the following scenario may lead to an irrecoverable error in a database system?

  1. A transaction writes a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
  2. A transaction reads a data item after it is read by an uncommitted transaction
  3. A transaction reads a data item after it is written by a committed transactions
  4. A transaction reads a data item after it is written by an uncommitted transaction.
Answer & explanation →
Q37. An observational technique that can be used to understand operational processes and help derive requirements for software to support those processes is known as
  1. Requirement specification
  2. Structural specification
  3. Ethnography
  4. Natural language specification
Answer & explanation →
Q38.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R . A virtual memory system uses first-in first-out page replacement policy and allocates a fixed number of frames to a process

Assertion A: Increasing number of page frames allocated to a process sometimes increases the page fault rate.

Reason R: Some programs do not exhibit locality of reference. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q39.

Match List I with List II

Figure
Figure
  1. A-III B-IV C-II D-I
  2. A-III B-IV C-I D-II
  3. A-II B-III C-IV D-I
  4. A-II B-I C-IV D-III
Answer & explanation →
Q40. Consider the language L = {w ∈ {a, b, c}* : nₐ(w) + n_b(w) = n_c(w)}. L is
  1. Context free but not linear
  2. Not context free
  3. Context free and linear
  4. Linear
Answer & explanation →
Q41. Which of the following is NOT a mutation operator in a genetic algorithm?
  1. Random resetting
  2. Scramble
  3. Inversion
  4. Difference
Answer & explanation →
Q42.

Consider three processes: P0 (arrival 0 ms, burst 7 ms), P1 (arrival 1 ms, burst 3 ms), P2 (arrival 2 ms, burst 7 ms). Pre-emptive shortest job first scheduling is used, and scheduling happens only at arrival or completion of a process. What is the average waiting time?

Figure
  1. 3 ms
  2. 3.67 ms
  3. 4.47 ms
  4. 4 ms
Answer & explanation →
Q43. Which is NOT a component of the natural language understanding process?
  1. Morphological analysis
  2. Semantic analysis
  3. Pragmatic analysis
  4. Meaning analysis
Answer & explanation →
Q44.

Consider a hash table of size seven with starting (6x + 3) mod 4 index zero and a hash function . Assuming the hash table is initially empty. Which of the following is the content of the table when 1, 3, 8, 10, 5 the sequence , is inserted into the table using closed hashing? Here "__ " denotes an empty location in the table.

  1. 1,3,8,10,5_,_
  2. 3,8,1,_,10_,5
  3. _3,8,1,_,10,5
  4. _1,3,8,10,5_ C + +
Answer & explanation →
Q45. A three-dimensional array in C++ is declared as int A[a][b][c]. Array elements are stored in row-major order and indexing begins from 0. The address of the element A[r][s][t], in terms of the word length w of an integer, is
  1. &A[0][0][0] + w(b·c·s + c·r + t)
  2. &A[0][0][0] + w(b·c·r + c·s + t)
  3. &A[0][0][0] + w(a·b·r + c·s + t)
  4. &A[0][0][0] + w(a·b·s + c·r + t)
Answer & explanation →
Q46.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. RAID level 2, B. RAID level 4, C. RAID level 5, D. RAID level 3. List II: I. Bit-interleaved parity, II. Block-interleaved distributed parity, III. Error-correcting parity, IV. Block-interleaved parity.

Figure
  1. A-IV B-III C-I D-II
  2. A-III B-IV C-II D-I
  3. A-III B-I C-II D-IV
  4. A-I B-III C-IV D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q47.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Expert system, B. Fuzzy system, C. Operator in genetic algorithm, D. Supervised technique. List II: I. Decision tree, II. Scramble, III. Inference engine, IV. Mycin.

Figure
  1. A-IV B-I C-III D-II
  2. A-III B-IV C-II D-I
  3. A-IV B-III C-II D-I
  4. A-I B-II C-III D-IV
Answer & explanation →
Q48. Consider the following statements:
A. A context-free language is generated by an LR(0) grammar if and only if it is accepted by a deterministic pushdown automaton and has the prefix property.
B. If M1 is a single-tape TM simulating a multitape TM M, then the time taken by M1 to simulate n moves is O(n³).
C. A pushdown automaton behaves like a Turing machine when it has one auxiliary memory.
D. L = {aⁿbⁿcⁿ : n ≥ 1} is not context-free but is context-sensitive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B only
  3. D only
  4. B, C only
Answer & explanation →
Q49. Consider a popular sports news site. At a given moment, 20,000 concurrent users each submit a request (a transaction T) once every 2 minutes on average. Each transaction requires the web app to download a new article that is on average 3 KB long. What is the throughput?
  1. 8 megabits per second
  2. 4 megabits per second
  3. 6 megabits per second
  4. 2 megabits per second
Answer & explanation →
Q50.

How many integral solutions are there to x + y + z + w = 29, where x ≥ 1, y ≥ 2, z ≥ 3 and w ≥ 0?

  1. 2400
  2. 2600
  3. 2800
  4. 3000 R(A, B, C, D, F)
Answer & explanation →
Q51. Let R(A, B, C, D, E, F) be a relational schema with the functional dependencies C → F, E → A, EC → D, A → B. Which of the following is a key for R?
  1. CD
  2. EC
  3. AE
  4. AC
Answer & explanation →
Q52. What is the output of the following code?
main() {
  struct s1 { char *z; int i; struct s1 *p; };
  static struct s1 a[] = {
    {"Nagpur", 1, a+1},
    {"Raipur", 2, a+2},
    {"Kanpur", 3, a}
  };
  struct s1 *ptr = a;
  printf("%s %s %s\n", a[0].z, ptr->z, a[2].p->z);
}
  1. Nagpur Raipur Kanpur
  2. Nagpur Nagpur Nagpur
  3. Kanpur Kanpur Kanpur
  4. Error
Answer & explanation →
Q53. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the ACID properties of a database transaction?
  1. Atomicity
  2. Consistency
  3. Isolation
  4. Deadlock-freedom
Answer & explanation →
Q54.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. Critical region, B. Wait/signal, C. Working set, D. Deadlock. List II: I. Hoare's monitor, II. Mutual exclusion, III. Principle of locality, IV. Circular wait.

Figure
  1. A-IV B-I C-III D-II
  2. A-II B-I C-III D-IV
  3. A-I B-II C-III D-IV
  4. A-IV B-III C-I D-II
Answer & explanation →
Q55.

Consider two hosts P and Q that are connected through a router R. The maximum transfer unit (MTU) value of the link between P and R is 1500 bytes and between R and Q is 820 bytes. A TCP segment of size 1400 bytes is transferred from P to Q through R with IP identification value of 0 × 1234 . Assume that IP header size is 20 bytes. Further the pcaket is allowed to be fragmented that is Don't fragment (DF) flag in the IP Header is not set by P. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?

A. Two fragments are created at R and IP datagram size carrying the second fragment is 620 bytes

B. If the second fragment is lost, then R resends the fragment with IP identification value of 0 × 1234

C. If the second fragment lost, then P requires to resend the entire TCP segment.

D. TCP destination port can be determined by analyzing the second fragment only.

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A and C only
  3. C and D only
  4. B and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q56.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R.

Assertion A: Dendral is an expert system

Reason R: The rationality of an agent is not related to its reaction to the environment. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q57. In a multi-user operating system, on average 20 requests are made to use a particular resource per hour. The probability that no request is made in 45 minutes is
  1. e⁻¹⁵
  2. e⁻⁵
  3. 1 − e⁻⁵
  4. 1 − e⁻¹⁰
Answer & explanation →
Q58. At a particular time of computation, the value of a counting semaphore is 7. Then 20 P operations and x V operations were completed on this semaphore. If the final value of the semaphore is 5, x will be
  1. 15
  2. 22
  3. 18
  4. 13
Answer & explanation →
Q59. Which of the following is NOT a solution representation in a genetic algorithm?
  1. Binary valued
  2. Real valued
  3. Permutation
  4. Combinations
Answer & explanation →
Q60.

Which phase of compiler checks the grammar of programming?

  1. Code optimization
  2. Semantic analysis
  3. Code generators
  4. Syntax analysis
Answer & explanation →
Q61.

Given the basic E R diagram and relational model, which of the the following is incorrect?

  1. An attribute of an entity can have more than one value
  2. An attribute of an entity can be composite
  3. In a row of relational table, an attribute can have more than one value
  4. In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL value
Answer & explanation →
Q62.

A processor chip is used for application in which 30 % of execution time is spent on floating point addition. For the new model of the processor, the design team has come up with redesign the floating point adder to make it twice as fast. What will be possible maximum speed up by this redesign?

  1. 2.0
  2. 1.06
  3. 1.18
  4. 2.5
Answer & explanation →
Q63.

Given below are two statements: Which of the following concurrency control protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock?

Statement I: Two phase locking

Statement II: Timestamp ordering In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q64. Consider the following statements:
A. C-fuzzy means clustering is a supervised method of learning.
B. PCA is used for dimension reduction.
C. Apriori is not a supervised technique.
D. When a machine-learning model becomes so specially tuned to its exact input data that it fails to generalise to other similar data, it is called underfitting.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A and B
  2. B and C
  3. C and D
  4. D and A
Answer & explanation →
Q65.

Sutherland Hodgeman method is used on

  1. Smooth curves
  2. Line segment
  3. Convex polygons
  4. Concave polygons
Answer & explanation →
Q66.

A. The set of turning machine codes for TM's that accept all inputs that are palindromes (possible along with some other inputs) is decidable

B. The language of codes for TM's M that when started with blank tape, eventually write a 1 somewhere on the tape is undecidable

C. The language accepted by a TMM is LM is always recursive

D. Post's correspondence problem is undecidable

  1. A, B and C only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A and C only
  4. B and D only G = R H = {−1, 1}
Answer & explanation →
Q67.

Let G = ℝ − {0} and H = {−1, 1} be groups under multiplication. Then the map φ : G → H defined by φ(x) = x/|x| is

  1. Not a homomorphism
  2. A one-one homomorphism, which is not onto
  3. An onto homomorphism, which is not one to one
  4. An homomorphism
Answer & explanation →
Q68.

Which of the following parser is most powerful parser?

  1. Operator precedence
  2. SLR
  3. Canonical LR
  4. LALR
Answer & explanation →
Q69.

What is x in the following program? # include < stdioh>

int main ()
{typedef (* (* arrfptr [3])()) [10];
arrfptr x ;
return 0;
}
  1. x is a pointer
  2. x is a array of three pointer
  3. x is an array of three function pointer
  4. Error in x declaration
Answer & explanation →
Q70.

Find the sum of all four digit numbers formed using the digits 1,2,4 and 6 .

  1. 86,658
  2. 88,8858
  3. 91,958
  4. 93,358
Answer & explanation →
Q71. Consider the following statements:
A. Dynamic metrics are collected by measurements made of a program in execution.
B. Static metrics are collected by measurements made of representations of the system.
C. The assessment of software quality is an objective process.
D. An important part of quality assurance is the selection of standards that should apply to the software development process.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  1. A, B, C only
  2. B, C, D only
  3. A, C, D only
  4. A, B, D only
Answer & explanation →
Q72.

The time between failures for a software system is: failure 1 – 6 hours, failure 2 – 4 hours, failure 3 – 8 hours, failure 4 – 5 hours, failure 5 – 6 hours. The reliability of the system for one hour of operation, assuming an exponential model, is

  1. e^(−9/29)
  2. e^(−7/29)
  3. e^(−5/29)
  4. e^(−3/29)
Answer & explanation →
Q73.

Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Ackermann's function is primitive recursive.
  2. L = {aⁿbᵏcⁿ⁺ᵏ : n ≥ 0, k ≥ 0} is a regular language.
  3. L = {aⁿbʲ : n = j²} is not a context-free language.
  4. For every context-sensitive language L not including λ, there exists some linear bounded automaton M such that L ≠ L(M).
Answer & explanation →
Q74. How will you free the memory allocated by the following program?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
#define MAXROW 3
#define MAXCOL 4
int main() {
  int **p, i, j;
  p = (int **) malloc(MAXROW * sizeof(int*));
  return 0;
}
  1. memfree(int p);
  2. dealloc(p);
  3. malloc(p, 0);
  4. free(p);
Answer & explanation →
Q75.

Which is not a basic approach to the problem of conflict resolution in a production system?

  1. Assigning a preference based on the rule that matched
  2. Assigning a preference based the object that matched
  3. Assigning a preference based on the action that the matched rule would perform
  4. Assigning a preference based on the action that the matched object would perform
Answer & explanation →
Q76.

Match List I with List II. List I: A. A △ B, B. A − (B ∪ C), C. A − (B ∩ C), D. A ∩ (B − C). List II: I. (A − B) ∪ (A − C), II. (A − B) ∩ (A − C), III. (A − B) ∪ (B − A), IV. (A ∩ B) − (A ∩ C).

Figure
  1. A-III B-II C-I D-IV
  2. A-II B-III C-IV D-I
  3. A-IV B-III C-I D-II
  4. A-IV B-I C-III D-II
Answer & explanation →
Q77.

The clipping process in computer graphics is used for

  1. Adding graphics
  2. Copying
  3. Zooming
  4. Removing objects and lines
Answer & explanation →
Q78.

Consider a disk system with cylinders. The request to access the cylinders occurs in the following sequence: 4, 34, 10, 7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20 Assuming that the head is currently at cylinder 50 , what is the time taken to satisfy all requests if it takes 1 ms to move from one cylinder to adjacent one and shortest seek time first policy is used?

  1. 119 ms
  2. 120 ms
  3. 142 ms
  4. 146 ms
Answer & explanation →
Q79.

Consider the rectangle with vertices (0, 0), (0, 2), (3, 0), (3, 2) . There is scaling of 2 towards x -axis and 3 towards y -axis. The new cordinates of the rectangle are

  1. (0, 0), (6, 0), (0, 4), (6, 4)
  2. (0, 0), (6, 0), (0, 4), (3, 2)
  3. (0, 0), (6, 0), (0, 6), (6, 6)
  4. (0, 0), (4, 0), (0, 6), (4, 6)
Answer & explanation →
Q80.

Which of the following transforms in 2 dimension is used to resize a 2-dimensional object?

  1. Translation
  2. Rotation
  3. Scaling
  4. Shearing
Answer & explanation →
Q81. In standard Ethernet with a transmission rate of 10 Mbps, assume the length of the medium is 2500 m and the size of a frame is 512 bytes. The propagation speed of a signal in the cable is 2 × 108 m/s. Calculate the transmission delay and propagation delay.
  1. 25.25 μs and 51.2 μs
  2. 51.2 μs and 12.5 μs
  3. 10.24 μs and 50.12 μs
  4. 12.5 μs and 51.2 μs
Answer & explanation →
Q82.

Consider the following statements.

A. The identity is unique in any monoid.

B. A monoid is a group if there exists inverse of each element of monoid.

C. Semi group has closure, associative and identity properties.

D. Quasi group has closure property.

  1. A, B and D only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q83. What is the output of the following code?
main() {
  static float a[] = {13.24, 1.5, 4.5, 5.4, 3.5};
  float *j, *k;
  j = a;
  k = a + 4;
  j = j * 2;
  k = k / 2;
  printf("%f %f", *j, *k);
}
  1. 13.25, 4.5
  2. 1.5, 3.5
  3. 13.24, 1.5, 4.5, 5.4, 3.5
  4. Illegal use of pointer in main function
Answer & explanation →
Q84. If A = {4n + 2 | n is a natural number} and B = {3n | n is a natural number}, which of the following is correct for A ∩ B?
  1. {12n² + 6n | n is a natural number}
  2. {24n − 12 | n is a natural number}
  3. {60n + 30 | n is a natural number}
  4. {12n − 6 | n is a natural number}
Answer & explanation →
Q85.

Match List I with List II

Figure
  1. A-I B-III C-IV D-II
  2. A-IV B-III C-II D-I
  3. A-I B-II C-IV D-III
  4. A-IV B-II C-III D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q86.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: If f and g are two functions and f = O(g) g ≠ o(f) but , we say that the growth rate of g is smaller than that of f

Statement II: The class of all decision problems decided by a TM in exponential time, that is O(2k) k , being a constant. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 32M × 8
Answer & explanation →
Q87.

256 Mb DRAM is organized as a 16 K × 16 K memory externally and as a square array internally. Each row must be refreshed at least once every 50 mili second to forestall loss of data; refreshing one row takes 100 nanoseconds. What fraction of the total memory bandwidth is lost to refresh cycles?

  1. 6.6%
  2. 3.3%
  3. 9.9%
  4. 4.3%
Answer & explanation →
Q88.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: subsystem models show logical grouping of objects into coherent subsystem

Statement II: State machine models show how objects change their states in response to events. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q89.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R.

Assertion A: It is possible to create doubly linked list using only one pointer with every node.

Reason R: By storing the XOR of the addresses of the previous and next nodes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q90.

The compiler for high level language that runs on one machine and produces code for other machine is called-

  1. Cross compiler
  2. Multipass compiler
  3. Optimizing Compiler
  4. More than one of the above (E) None of the above Directions (91-95) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Consider the following program fragment that deals with a table T with 17 rows and 1024 columns, computing an average for each column and printing it to screen ( i is row index and j is column index): for j= [ 0...1023] { temp =0; for i= [0...16] temp = temp + T[i][j]; print (temp/17.0); } T [i] [i] and temp are 32 bit floating point values and memory is word addressable. The temporary variable temp is kept in a processor register so access to temp does not involve a memory reference. The main memory is page and holds 16 pages of size 1024 words, the page replacement policy is "least recently used ". If T is stored in the virtual address space in row major format.
Answer & explanation →

Directions (Q91–95): Consider the following program fragment that deals with a table T with 17 rows and 1024 columns, computing an average for each column and printing it (i is the row index and j is the column index):

for j = [0...1023] {
  temp = 0;
  for i = [0...16]
    temp = temp + T[i][j];
  print(temp / 17.0);
}

T[i][j] and temp are 32-bit floating-point values and memory is word addressable. temp is kept in a processor register, so accessing temp does not involve a memory reference. The main memory is paged and holds 16 pages of 1024 words each. The page replacement policy is least recently used (LRU). Unless stated otherwise, T is stored in the virtual address space in row-major format.

Q91. Consider now that T is stored in column-major format. What is the main memory hit ratio?
  1. 80%
  2. 95.6%
  3. 97.8%
  4. 99.9%
Answer & explanation →
Q92. Consider that T is stored in column-major format. How many page faults will be encountered?
  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 16
  4. 17
Answer & explanation →

Directions (Q91–95): A program computes the average of each column of a table T with 17 rows and 1024 columns:
for j = 0 … 1023 {
temp = 0;
for i = 0 … 16
temp = temp + T[i][j];
print(temp / 17.0);
}
T[i][j] and temp are 32-bit floating-point values, memory is word addressable, and temp is kept in a register. Main memory is paged and holds 16 pages of 1024 words; page replacement is LRU. Unless stated otherwise, T is stored in row-major order.

Q93.

How many page faults will be encountered?

  1. 16,402
  2. 17,408
  3. 18,208
  4. 18,608
Answer & explanation →
Q94.

What is fault ratio of row major to column major arrangements ?

  1. 1024: 1
  2. 1301: 1
  3. 1240: 1
  4. 9107: 8
Answer & explanation →
Q95.

What is the main memory hit ratio?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3 Directions (96-100) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. IP datagram has arrived with following partial information in the header (in hexadecimal ) 45000054000300002006....
Answer & explanation →

Directions (Q96–100): An IP datagram has arrived with the following partial header information (in hexadecimal): 45000054 00030000 2006…

Q96. How many more routers can the packet travel to?
  1. 22
  2. 26
  3. 30
  4. 32
Answer & explanation →

Directions (Q96–100): An IP datagram arrives with the following partial header (hexadecimal): 45 00 00 54 00 03 00 00 20 06 …

Q97.

What is the protocol of the payload being carried by the packet?

  1. ICMP
  2. SCTP
  3. TCP protocol
  4. IGMP
Answer & explanation →
Q98.

What is the size of datagram?

  1. 64 bytes
  2. 74 bytes
  3. 84 bytes
  4. 104 bytes
Answer & explanation →
Q99. What is the header size?
  1. 10 bytes
  2. 20 bytes
  3. 30 bytes
  4. 40 bytes
Answer & explanation →
Q100. What is the efficiency of this datagram?
  1. 76.19%
  2. 80.50%
  3. 82.24%
  4. 85.45%
Answer & explanation →

Answer key

  1. 1 – B
  2. 2 – B
  3. 3 – A
  4. 4 – B
  5. 5 – D
  6. 6 – C
  7. 7 – D
  8. 8 – A
  9. 9 – D
  10. 10 – C
  11. 11 – C
  12. 12 – A
  13. 13 – B
  14. 14 – B
  15. 15 – C
  16. 16 – A
  17. 17 – A
  18. 18 – A
  19. 19 – A
  20. 20 – B
  21. 21 – C
  22. 22 – C
  23. 23 – A
  24. 24 – A
  25. 25 – B
  26. 26 – C
  27. 27 – B
  28. 28 – A
  29. 29 – D
  30. 30 – A
  31. 31 – B
  32. 32 – C
  33. 33 – D
  34. 34 – C
  35. 35 – D
  36. 36 – D
  37. 37 – C
  38. 38 – B
  39. 39 – B
  40. 40 – A
  41. 41 – D
  42. 42 – B
  43. 43 – D
  44. 44 – D
  45. 45 – B
  46. 46 – B
  47. 47 – C
  48. 48 – C
  49. 49 – B
  50. 50 – B
  51. 51 – B
  52. 52 – B
  53. 53 – D
  54. 54 – B
  55. 55 – B
  56. 56 – C
  57. 57 – A
  58. 58 – C
  59. 59 – D
  60. 60 – D
  61. 61 – C
  62. 62 – C
  63. 63 – D
  64. 64 – B
  65. 65 – C
  66. 66 – D
  67. 67 – C
  68. 68 – C
  69. 69 – C
  70. 70 – A
  71. 71 – D
  72. 72 – C
  73. 73 – C
  74. 74 – D
  75. 75 – D
  76. 76 – A
  77. 77 – D
  78. 78 – A
  79. 79 – C
  80. 80 – C
  81. 81 – B
  82. 82 – A
  83. 83 – D
  84. 84 – D
  85. 85 – B
  86. 86 – B
  87. 87 – B
  88. 88 – A
  89. 89 – A
  90. 90 – A
  91. 91 – D
  92. 92 – D
  93. 93 – B
  94. 94 – A
  95. 95 – A
  96. 96 – D
  97. 97 – C
  98. 98 – C
  99. 99 – B
  100. 100 – A