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UGC NET · PSYCHOLOGY

UGC NET Psychology Paper 2 – June 2020 cycle (25 Sep 2020, Shift 1) – Question Paper with Answer Key

99 questions · answer key at the end · updated 26 Oct 2026

Solved by The Binary Brothers: every question has the correct answer and an explanation. Open any question for its full solution, or practice it in the unit-wise mock tests.

Q1.

Which one of the following branches of philosophy of science deals with the question of existence?

  1. Post-positivism
  2. Structuralism
  3. Ontology
  4. Scientific realism
Answer & explanation →
Q2.

Which one of the following terms denotes that there are qualities of experience that cannot be explained in terms of combinations of traditional kinds of sensations?

  1. Zeitgeist
  2. Tropism
  3. Gestalt Qualitaten
  4. Conarium
Answer & explanation →
Q3.

A researcher is studying group process of software startup developers by staying with them and like them for six months. Which of the following is used by her?

  1. Grounded theory
  2. Ethonography
  3. Narrative analysis
  4. Phenomenological research
Answer & explanation →
Q4.

Testing the scientific hypothesis is impossible due to the need of auxiliary assumptions. What is this associated with?

  1. Occam's razor
  2. Logical empiricism
  3. Duhem-—Quine thesis
  4. Incommensurability
Answer & explanation →
Q5.

Making decisions by the use of mental short cuts that focus on one aspect of a problem, while ignoring others refers to which one of the following?

  1. Framing
  2. Belief perseverance
  3. Heuristics
  4. Mental set
Answer & explanation →
Q6.

A group of sixty newly diagnosed diabetic patients were tested for anxiety using a standardized inventory. They were retested for anxiety again after months using the same inventory. The mean difference in anxiety was evaluated by a suitable t-test. The degrees of freedom associated with the t-test would be

  1. 120
  2. 118
  3. 59
  4. 58
Answer & explanation →
Q7.

In depth perception, what kind of images are used?

  1. Uni-dimensional image
  2. Two-dimensional images
  3. Three-dimensional images
  4. Four-dimensional images
Answer & explanation →
Q8.

Total cholesterol is determined by adding which of the following values?

  1. HDL + LDL
  2. HDL + LDL + 30% OF VLDL
  3. HDL + LDL + 10% of VLDL
  4. HDL + LDL + 20% of Triglycerides
Answer & explanation →
Q9.

Which approach focussed on the nature of a task and its influence on a person's ability in solving problems?

  1. Associationist approach
  2. Information processing approach
  3. Gestalt approach
  4. Behaviourist approach
Answer & explanation →
Q10.

Teplov while discussing the strong/weak nervous systems believed that the point of 'transmarginal unhibition' is the point beyong which :

  1. The magnitude of response decreases as stimulus intensity decreases
  2. The magnitude of response increases as stimulus intensity decreases
  3. The magnitude of response increases irrespective of stimulus intensity decrease/increase
  4. The magnitude of response decreases irrespective of stimulus intensity decrease/increase
Answer & explanation →
Q11.

In multiple approach-avoidance conflict, one has to choose between which of the following?

  1. Two goals possessing both negative and positive aspects
  2. More than two goals; each having both positive and negative aspects
  3. More than two goals; one having negative aspects and others having positive valences
  4. More than two goals; at least one having positive aspects while others may have negative aspects
Answer & explanation →
Q12.

Which one of the following models proposes that there are three major functional units of the brain: focussing on sustaining attention; receiving and storing information and planning and self-monitoring?

  1. PASS model
  2. Kar and Parrila's model
  3. Atkinson and Shiffrin model
  4. Hunt's model
Answer & explanation →
Q13.

For an intelligence test in an educational setting, which of the following difficulty value shows maximum discrimination?

  1. 0.8
  2. 0.6
  3. 0.5
  4. 0.3
Answer & explanation →
Q14.

What do you call the attention that is drawn automatically to a stimulus without the intention of the participant?

  1. Divided attention
  2. Shadowing
  3. Endogenous attention
  4. Exogenous attention
Answer & explanation →
Q15.

Jensen put forward the 'Regression' argument to account for which of the following?

  1. To understand inter-generation changes in intellegence
  2. To understand intra-generation changes in intelligence
  3. To understand group differences in intelligence
  4. To understand the role of genetics in intelligence
Answer & explanation →
Q16.

What is the retention without conscious recollection of skills and dispositions called?

  1. Iconic memory
  2. Implicit memory
  3. Explicit memory
  4. Semantic memory
Answer & explanation →
Q17.

Who among the following is credited with proposing the investment theory of creativity?

  1. Gatzels and Jackson
  2. Kaufman
  3. Wallach and Kogan
  4. Sternberg
Answer & explanation →
Q18.

Client: (Silent and shifting nervously in her chair. She is facing the counselor, but her eyes scan anxiously about) Counselor: It must be difficult for you to decide what you are going to do here with me This response is an example of:

  1. Dealing with content speculated to be motivating for non-verbal behaviour by the counselor
  2. Encourages to deal with non verbal behaviour
  3. Encourages to understand the feelings
  4. Reflection of feelings
Answer & explanation →
Q19.

In Bronfenbrenner's model, which one of the following systems is independent of cultural bias?

  1. Micro system
  2. Meso system
  3. Exo system
  4. Macro system
Answer & explanation →
Q20.

A harsh father always restricts the curiosity motive of his son and the son develops a general hostility towards his superiors. Which of the following is correct about this?

  1. The father represses the curiosity
  2. Such change is permanent
  3. It is the most modifiable response
  4. It is conditioned hostility
Answer & explanation →
Q21.

Which of the following principle is violated when a psychologist intentionally misrepresents his research results?

  1. Beneficence
  2. Fidelity and responsibility
  3. Integrity
  4. Confidentiality
Answer & explanation →
Q22.

According to Lazarus, what comes between the stimulus and emotional response to that stimulus to mediate?

  1. Physiological reactions
  2. Labeling
  3. Social and situational cues
  4. Cognitive appraisal
Answer & explanation →
Q23.

Vaibhasika and Sautrantika are associated with which of the following?

  1. Theravada
  2. Cetasikas
  3. Madhyamikavada
  4. Sarvastivadin
Answer & explanation →
Q24.

In the famous experiment by Schacter and Singer involving epinephrine, what was found to govern the emotions?

  1. Perceptual cues only
  2. Social appraisal only
  3. Both cognitive appraisal and physiological arousal
  4. Both cognitive and social appraisal
Answer & explanation →
Q25.

Which of the following is the correct response pattern for the semantic differential test to measure a trait 'active'?

  1. I am active: SA A N D SD
  2. I am active: True/False
  3. Choose one: Active–Trusting
  4. Active … Neutral … Passive
Answer & explanation →
Q26.

Which one of the following is the correct description of Old Fashioned Racism?

  1. A contemporary form of antagonism towards a racial group based on prejudice and values rather than on self-interest
  2. Beliefs in which racial superiority, segregation and formal discrimination
  3. Attitude towards a racial group, combing egalitarian social values and negative emotion resulting in avoidance of that group
  4. Well learned sets of association that can be automatically activated, uncontrollable and unintentional
Answer & explanation →
Q27.

Which of the following is an attitude measure that places a single adjective in the centre of an even number of numerical values?

  1. Edward scale
  2. Thurstone scale
  3. Stapel scale
  4. Semantic differntial scale
Answer & explanation →
Q28.

Which one of the following is considered as correct for Poverty Gap?

  1. Gap between Rich and Poor
  2. Gap between developed and developing nations
  3. Difference between poverty line and actual income level of all those living below that line
  4. Gap in the infrastructure facilities between developed nations
Answer & explanation →
Q29.

Who among the following conducted one of the most famous and controversial experiments in the area of obedience?

  1. Sherif
  2. Asch
  3. Milgram
  4. Cialdini
Answer & explanation →
Q30.

Immediately after an action potential, the cell does not produce another action potential due to

  1. Absolute refractory period
  2. Relative refractory period
  3. Resting state
  4. Active state
Answer & explanation →
Q31.

Which one of the following attitude scaling methods is especially unsuitable for scaling a large number of attitude statements?

  1. Paired comparison
  2. Equal appearing intervals
  3. Summated ratings
  4. Successive intervals
Answer & explanation →
Q32.

The Door in the Face Technique is based on which tactics of compliance?

  1. Tactics based on reciprocity
  2. Tactics based on commitment or consistency
  3. Tactics based on friendship or liking
  4. Tactics based on scarcity
Answer & explanation →
Q33.

Which neurotransmitter is helpful in synaptic plasticity?

  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Glutamate
  3. GABA
  4. Dopamine
Answer & explanation →
Q34.

Which technique of studying the brain involves injecting the patient with radioactive glucose?

  1. EEG
  2. MRI
  3. PET
  4. CT
Answer & explanation →
Q35.

What does 'Absolute Poverty' mean?

  1. Poverty in terms of absolute number of people
  2. Poverty in terms of prevailing price level
  3. Poverty in terms of absolute level of unemployment
  4. Basic minimum calorie requirement
Answer & explanation →
Q36.

What do you call the neurological procedure involving the implantation of a medical device under the skin in the chest that sends electrical impulses to electrodes surgically placed in the specific location in the brain?

  1. Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)
  2. Repetitive Transmagnetic Stimulation (rTMS)
  3. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
  4. Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)
Answer & explanation →
Q37.

Antiduretic hormone (ADH) is released by which of the following?

  1. Adrenal cortex
  2. Adrenal medulla
  3. Anterior pituitary
  4. Posterior pituitary
Answer & explanation →
Q38.

Which of the following is the correct explanation of "An intolerance for weakness, a punitive attitude and submissive respect for their in-group authorities as reflected in their agreement"?

  1. Social Dominance Orientation
  2. Ethnocentrism
  3. Conformity
  4. Inequality
Answer & explanation →
Q39.

Who believed that meaning in life can be uncovered by creative, experiential and attitudinal values?

  1. Rollo May
  2. Victor Frankl
  3. Friedrick Nietzsche
  4. Jean Paul Sartre
Answer & explanation →
Q40.

Who among the following has laid emphasis on examining the relationship of culturally specific practices with development?

  1. Piaget
  2. Fodor
  3. Vygotsky
  4. Kohlberg
Answer & explanation →
Q41.

Which of the following are considered in favour of scientific realism?

A. Corroboration

B. Empiricism

C. Miracle argument

D. Selective optimism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. B and D only
  3. B and C only
  4. A, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q42.

In the independent groups' design, selective subject loss occurs because of which of the following?

A. Subjects are lost differently across conditions

B. Subject characteristics are responsible for subject loss

C. Subjects are lost uniformly across conditions

D. Subject characteristics are independent of subject loss

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. A and C only
  3. B and D only
  4. C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q43.

Which one of the following personality test/s employ/s a 'Lie' scale?

A. Rotter's Locus of control scale

B. Eysenck Personality Profiler

C. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2

D. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. C only
  2. B and C only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q44.

Which of the following are involved in decreased food intake and weight loss?

A. Insulin

B. Leptin

C. Cholecystokinin

D. Orexin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. A, B and C only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q45.

Which of the following character strengths are included in the VIA classification of strengths?

A. Creativity

B. Forgiveness

C. Resilience

D. Prudence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. D, C and A only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A and C only
Answer & explanation →
Q46.

Which of the following internal roadblocks to effective listening is exemplified by the

statement "We have never done it that way before"?

A. Resistance to change

B. Halo Effect

C. Stereotyping

D. Hearing only, not feeling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A only
  2. A and B only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A, B, C and D
Answer & explanation →
Q47.

Adult neurons rely heavily on which of the following?

A. Glucose

B. Protein

C. Potassium

D. Sodium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A only
  2. A and B only
  3. C and D only
  4. A, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q48.

Which of the following were considered to be appropriate for psychological study by Wundt?

A. Analysis of cultural products

B. Higher mental processes

C. The totality of psychological phenomena

D. Self-observation

E. Physiological type of experimentation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C and D only
  2. B, C, D and E only
  3. A, D and E only
  4. A, C, D and E only
Answer & explanation →
Q49.

The cognitive theory contends dependency behaviours to be arising, from and being maintained by cognitive distortions and maladaptive thought processes. Which of the following are associated with cognitive distortions?

A. Availability

B. Hindsight bias

C. Flexible attribution

D. Illusion of control

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C and D only
  2. A, B and C only
  3. B, C and D only
  4. C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q50.

Which of the following is true about Hypovolemia?

A. It causes thirst

B. It increases the blood pressure

C. Angiotensin is released during this condition

D. The volume of blood increases

E. Blood pressure reduces

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, C and E only
  3. A, D and E only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q51.

Which of the following are the parts of mental logic theories of reasoning?

A. A set of interference schemas

B. Accumulation of concepts

C. A reasoning program

D. A set of pragmatic principles

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A, C and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q52.

Which is true about coefficient alpha?

A. It is a lower bound of a test of parallel items

B. It is an upper bound of a test of parallel items

C. It is an average of all combination of split-half reliabilities

D. It is independent of inter-item correlations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. C only
  2. A and B only
  3. A and C only
  4. C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q53.

Which of the following statements are true about Unity Thema?

A. It is a compound of interrelated needs linked to press

B. It is a compound of conflicting needs linked to press

C. It operates largely as an unconscious force

D. It operates largely as a conscious force

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A and C only
  3. A and D only
  4. B and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q54.

What comprises haptic perception?

A. Shape

B. Size

C. Volume

D. Identity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, C and D only
  3. B, C and D only
  4. A, B and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q55.

Which of the following are the components of Metacognition?

A. Metacognition knowledge

B. Metacognition experience

C. Metacognition control

D. Metacognition regulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. A and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A, B and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q56.

Which of the following are associated with the Path in Sufism?

A. Establishing self and assertion

B. Repentance

C. Renunciation

D. Poverty

E. Annihilation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C and E only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A, B, C and D only
  4. B, C, D and E only
Answer & explanation →
Q57.

Which of the following is useful for testing univariate normality of distribution?

A. Q-Q plot

B. Shapiro-Wilk test

C. Jarque- Bera test

D. Scatter plot

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. B and D only
  3. A, B and D only
  4. A, B and C only
Answer & explanation →
Q58.

Johnson-Laird (1995) has some contengencies in the scientific study of logic, which comprise:

A. Relational inferences

B. Propositional inferences

C. Focus gambling

D. Syllogisms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A, C and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q59.

Which of the following are comprised in executive functions?

A. Planning

B. Attention

C. Set shifting

D. Declarative memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A, C and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q60.

Mr A is very good at discriminating between progressive and regressive ways of behaviour. His choices are clearly perceived by him and adequately symbolised. According to Rogers, these are the characteristics of which of the following?

A. Individual tendency towards 'growth'

B. Tendency to 'self actualise'

C. His constructive creativity

D. His self-affirmation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and C only
  2. A, C and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. B only
Answer & explanation →
Q61.

The psychosocial stage of Intimacy v/s Isolation is preceded and succeeded by which of the following?

A. Generativity v/s Stagnation

B. Identity v/s Identity confusion

C. Industry v/s Diffusion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A only
  2. A and C only
  3. A and B only
  4. B and C only
Answer & explanation →
Q62.

Which of the following characterise the hardy person?

A. He is high on sense of commitment

B. He is more likely to act to 'cover-up'

C. He doesn't avoid problems, yet he is often angry

D. He is always under the control of his life and events

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and C only
  2. A and D only
  3. A and B only
  4. A, B and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q63.

Which of the following dimensions are essential to be mastered in multicultural counseling, as per McFadden's transcultural perspective?

A. Cultural-Historical

B. Historical hostility management

C. Scientific-Ideological

D. Minority identity management

E. Social

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, E and B only
  2. B, D and A only
  3. B, D and E only
  4. A, C and E only
Answer & explanation →
Q64.

Several types of heuristics have been identified by researchers. Which of the these are included in it?

A. Lexicographic strategy

B. Satisficing strategy

C. Mental set

D. Elimination by aspects

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only
  2. A, B and D only
  3. A, C and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →
Q65.

A teacher engages students in hands-on, inquiry-based and relevant learning activities in his class. What does this illustrate?

A. Application of the law of exercise

B. Application of the law of effect

C. Creating intrinsic motivation

D. Creating extrinsic motivation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B only
  2. B and C only
  3. A and C only
  4. C only
Answer & explanation →
Q66.

Match List I with List II

List I – Type of cancerList II – Description
A. CarcinomaI. Cancer that originates in the blood-forming cells such as stem cells
B. SarcomaII. Cancer of the epithelial tissue – cells that line the outer and inner surfaces of the body such as skin, stomach etc.
C. LeukaemiaIII. Cancer that arises from cells in connective tissue such as bone, muscles
D. LymphomaIV. Cancer of the lymphatic system, which is one of the rare types of cancer
  1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  3. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer & explanation →
Q67.

Match List I with List II

List I – Sources of personal efficacy (Bandura)List II – Therapeutic processes
A. Performance accomplishmentI. Live models, symbolic modelling
B. Vicarious experiencesII. Attribution, relaxation, biofeedback, symbolic desensitisation
C. Verbal persuasionIII. Participant modelling, performance exposure
D. Emotional arousalIV. Suggestion, exhortation, self-instruction
  1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer & explanation →
Q68.

Match List I with List II

List I – Type of reliabilityList II – Source of error variance
A. Test-retestI. Content heterogeneity
B. Alternate form (delayed)II. Inter-scorer differences
C. Coefficient alphaIII. Time sampling
D. Cohen's KappaIV. Content sampling and time sampling
  1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q69.

Match List I with List II

List I – ConceptList II – Knowledge tradition
A. PratibhaI. Samkhya philosophy
B. PrajnaII. Nyaya-Vaisesika
C. VakIII. Tantrik tradition
D. BhavasIV. Patanjali Yoga system
  1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  3. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Answer & explanation →
Q70.

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. EfficacyI. Response activated when drugs bind with a receptor
B. ToleranceII. Repeated exposure with less activation of receptors
C. DownregulationIII. Compensatory reduction in receptor availability
D. WithdrawalIV. Unpleasant physiological responses
  1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer & explanation →
Q71.

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Happiness results from experiences of personal expressivenessI. Ryan & Deci
B. Happiness is self-realisation, meaning the expression and fulfilment of inner potentialsII. Diener
C. Happiness reflects an individual's own judgement about the quality of his or her lifeIII. Aristotle
D. Happiness results from the fulfilment of three basic psychological needs: autonomy, competence and relatednessIV. Waterman
  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer & explanation →
Q72.

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. AggressionI. Aggression that is permissible according to the norms of the individual's social group
B. Anti-social aggressionII. Aggressive acts that support commonly accepted social norms
C. Pro-social aggressionIII. Any action intended to hurt another person
D. Sanctioned aggressionIV. Aggressive acts that violate commonly accepted social norms
  1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Answer & explanation →
Q73.

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. A reinforcement that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervalsI. Fixed-ratio schedule
B. A reinforcement that reinforces a response only after a specified time has lapsedII. Variable-ratio schedule
C. A reinforcement that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responsesIII. Fixed-interval schedule
D. A reinforcement that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responsesIV. Variable-interval schedule
  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q75.

Match List I with List II

List I – DescriptionList II – Concept
A. A laboratory device for testing depth in infants and young animalsI. Perceptual adaptation
B. Refers to the differences in the two eyes' location of corner anglesII. Horizontal disparity
C. Refers to two points which fall on non-corresponding retinal positions, one nearer and the other fartherIII. Vertical disparity
D. Perceptual adaptability to adjust to an artificially displaced visual fieldIV. Visual cliff
  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer & explanation →
Q76.

Which is the correct sequence of speech and language development according to Vygotsky?

A. Naive

B. Primitive

C. Egocentric

D. Ingrowth

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. B, A, C, D
  3. A, B, D, C
  4. B, A, D, C
Answer & explanation →
Q77.

In cognitive therapy by Elis, arrange the sequence of following after recognising the activating event

A. Discriminating the new emotional/behavioural consequences

B. Recognising the emotional/behavioural consequences of belief

C. Understanding the corresponding beliefs

D. Challenging and counteracting these beliefs

E. Recognising new feelings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C, A, E, D
  2. C, B, D, A, E
  3. C, B, A, E, D
  4. B, C, D, A, E
Answer & explanation →
Q78.

What is the correct sequence of Decision Making Perspective of Pro-social behaviour to help a person in distress?

A. Taking personal responsibility

B. Weighing the cost and benefits

C. Perceived a need

D. Deciding how to help

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, C, B, D
  2. B, A, C, D
  3. A, B, C, D
  4. C, A, B, D
Answer & explanation →
Q79.

Arrange the following in sequence as per the Extinction Transfer Theory of Aggression

A. Frustration

B. Residual Arousal

C. Arousing Events

D. Increased Arousal

E. Arousal attributed to Frustration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, C, B, D, E
  2. D, B, C, A, E
  3. C, D, B, A, E
  4. A, C, D, B, E
Answer & explanation →
Q80.

Arrange in sequence what Yerkes described commonly takes place in "insight learning"

A. Sharpening and frequent recurrent attention to the goal

B. Trial

C. Survey/Inspection

D. Attitude of concentrated attention

E. Critical point

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, C, A, D, E
  2. B, D, C, A, E
  3. C, D, B, A, E
  4. B, C, A, E, D
Answer & explanation →
Q81.

The enhancement of dominant responses is strongest when people think they are being evaluated. What is the correct sequence of this theory?

A. Evaluation apprehension

B. Well learned

C. Presence of other

D. Increased arousal

E. Social facilitation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, A, C, D, E
  2. C, D, A, B, E
  3. A, B, C, D, E
  4. A, C, D, B, E
Answer & explanation →
Q82.

What is the correct sequence of transformation in integral yoga?

A. Transformation of physical

B. Transformation of subconscient

C. Transformation of mind

D. Transformation of vital

E. Transformation of inconscient

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. C, D, A, B, E
  2. A, C, D, B, E
  3. A, D, C, B, E
  4. C, A, D, B, E
Answer & explanation →
Q83.

In which sequence, according to Piaget, the following cognitive milestones are achieved?

A. Object permanence

B. Reversibility

C. Abstraction

D. Centration

Choose the correct answer options from the given below:

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. C, A, B, D
  3. D, A, B, C
  4. A, D, B, C
Answer & explanation →
Q84.

Arrange the pairings of US and CS in classical conditioning in terms of onset of US in relation to CS starting from the earliest

A. Backward

B. Simultaneous

C. Delayed

D. Trace

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. D, B, C, A
  3. C, D, B, A
  4. D, C, A, B
Answer & explanation →
Q85.

Arrange the stages of personality development in the theory given by Rollo May

A. Innocence

B. Rebellion

C. Ordinary consciousness of self

D. Creative consciousness of self

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, C, B, D
  2. A, B, C, D
  3. B, C, A, D
  4. B, C, D, A
Answer & explanation →
Q86.

Given below two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A: Schertzer and Stone (1974) specified that acceptance requires respect for the individual as a person of warmth

Reason R: Therapists relate to their patients/clients in a non-judgemental, non-critical and non-punitive way

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true
Answer & explanation →
Q87.

Given below two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A: Obtained t-valve will follow theoretical t-distribution if underlying assumptions are fulfilled

Reason R: The application of t-test makes an assumption of heterogeneity of variance

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q88.

Given below two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A: According to Classical Test Theory (CTT) total variance is equal to the sum of true variance and error variance

Reason R: Error variance and true variance are independent of each other as per CTT

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q89.

Given below two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A: The NEO-PI-R does not have a response style scale

Reason R: NEO-PI-R developers argued that adjustment of social desirability leads to a reduction in validity

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer & explanation →
Q90.

Given below two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R

Assertion A: Many companies now enable their employees to share profits or even to participate in company ownership

Reason R: Worker's productivity boosts rewards from employers

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options

given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct
Answer & explanation →

A researcher wanted to predict academic achievement using Intelligence Test-A (IT-A), Intelligence Test-B (IT-B), Type of school (rural/urban), and conscientiousness as predictors. She used multiple regression analysis. She collected data on 200 students on all variables. The OLS estimator was used. The F = 8.9, p < .01 for the entire model. In individual predictor analysis, IT-B was the insignificant predictor. The suitable test indicated homoscedasticity. The model R² = 0.64 and adjusted R² = 0.59. Both intelligence tests are significantly correlated with the criterion variable and with each other.

Q91.

Which of the following is df for F for the entire model?

  1. 4; 195
  2. 4; 199
  3. 4; 195
  4. 3; 199
Answer & explanation →
Q92.

Which of the following is correct about residual variance in the passage?

  1. It is correlated with predictor variable
  2. It is correlated with criterion variable
  3. It is systematically distributed
  4. It is randomly distributed
Answer & explanation →
Q93.

What kind of a variable is 'type of school' in the passage?

  1. Moderator variable
  2. Mediator variable
  3. Dummy variable
  4. Quasi-continous variable
Answer & explanation →
Q94.

Which of the following is the reason for insignificance of IT-B?

  1. Heteroscedasticity
  2. Poor predictive power
  3. Small sample size
  4. Multicolinearity
Answer & explanation →
Q95.

What is indicated by R² in the passage?

  1. 64% variance is explained
  2. 80% variance is explained
  3. 32% variance is explained
  4. 36% variance is explained
Answer & explanation →

A psychologist developed a scale for measuring warmth and competence dimensions. As a part of scale development, she factor analysed 25 items to retain 20 items. She chose Exploratory Factor Analysis (EFA). The Bartlett's test = 237.8, p < .001. The overall Kaiser-Meyer-Olkin test (KMO) is 0.89. Principal Components Analysis (PCA) was used to extract components. The first eight eigenvalues were 9.9, 6.5, 1.6, 1.00, 0.85, 0.83, 0.82 and 0.79. She retained factors on the basis of scree plot and rotated them using varimax criteria. Three items showed cross-loadings, eighteen items loaded on only one of the factors, and remaining items did not load on any factors.

Q96.

Which of the following is correct in case of three items having cross-loading?

  1. They have excellent validity
  2. They are conceptually sound items
  3. The scale has poor reliability
  4. They should not be retained in the final scale
Answer & explanation →
Q97.

In the above example, what percentage of the variance would be explained by the first unrotated factor?

  1. 9.9
  2. 39.6
  3. 65.6
  4. 72.0
Answer & explanation →
Q98.

The Bartlett's test results in the above study suggested that

  1. Population correlation matrix is not an identity matrix
  2. Population correlation matrix is an identity matrix
  3. Sample correlation matrix is not an identity matrix
  4. Sample correlation matrix is an identity matrix
Answer & explanation →
Q99.

Using the Kaiser-Guttman criterion, how many factors would be retained in the above study?

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 2
  4. 3
Answer & explanation →
Q100.

Which of the following is correct for the Kaiser-Meyer-Olkin test?

A. It is a test of sampling adequacy

B. Chi-square test is used to test the significance

C. Values smaller than 0.5 are desirable

D. Smaller partial correlation leads to high KMO

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A only
  2. A and B only
  3. A and D only
  4. B, C and D only
Answer & explanation →

Answer key

  1. 1 – C
  2. 2 – C
  3. 3 – B
  4. 4 – C
  5. 5 – C
  6. 6 – C
  7. 7 – B
  8. 8 – D
  9. 9 – B
  10. 10 – B
  11. 11 – B
  12. 12 – A
  13. 13 – C
  14. 14 – D
  15. 15 – C
  16. 16 – B
  17. 17 – D
  18. 18 – A
  19. 19 – A
  20. 20 – D
  21. 21 – C
  22. 22 – D
  23. 23 – D
  24. 24 – C
  25. 25 – D
  26. 26 – B
  27. 27 – C
  28. 28 – C
  29. 29 – C
  30. 30 – A
  31. 31 – A
  32. 32 – A
  33. 33 – B
  34. 34 – C
  35. 35 – D
  36. 36 – A
  37. 37 – D
  38. 38 – B
  39. 39 – B
  40. 40 – C
  41. 41 – D
  42. 42 – A
  43. 43 – B
  44. 44 – B
  45. 45 – C
  46. 46 – A
  47. 47 – A
  48. 48 – D
  49. 49 – A
  50. 50 – B
  51. 51 – C
  52. 52 – C
  53. 53 – A
  54. 54 – A
  55. 55 – D
  56. 56 – D
  57. 57 – D
  58. 58 – B
  59. 59 – A
  60. 60 – C
  61. 61 – C
  62. 62 – B
  63. 63 – D
  64. 64 – B
  65. 65 – D
  66. 66 – A
  67. 67 – D
  68. 68 – C
  69. 69 – C
  70. 70 – B
  71. 71 – C
  72. 72 – B
  73. 73 – D
  74. 75 – D
  75. 76 – B
  76. 77 – D
  77. 78 – D
  78. 79 – C
  79. 80 – C
  80. 81 – B
  81. 82 – A
  82. 83 – D
  83. 84 – A
  84. 85 – B
  85. 86 – A
  86. 87 – C
  87. 88 – A
  88. 89 – A
  89. 90 – A
  90. 91 – A
  91. 92 – D
  92. 93 – C
  93. 94 – D
  94. 95 – A
  95. 96 – D
  96. 97 – B
  97. 98 – A
  98. 99 – D
  99. 100 – C